cassidy30
Feb 15, 2009, 04:07 PM
The questions basically asks if it is possible for an individual to save and invest in a corporation without lending money to it or purchasing additional shares?
I would assume there would be no way of investing in a company if you don't have anything TO invest?
SO how would not lending money or purchasing shares classify as the individual saving and investing?
Am I way off on this?
I would assume there would be no way of investing in a company if you don't have anything TO invest?
SO how would not lending money or purchasing shares classify as the individual saving and investing?
Am I way off on this?