IdahoBiker
Jan 15, 2009, 01:27 PM
I sold some Land 3 years ago, and on the property tax parcel it was listed as 3 Lots, I sold 2.
All 3 Lots had been being taxed as Unimproved since 1953 as 1 Parcel. The Remaining Lot out of the 3, contains 21' of my Home(I have a Aerial Plat SHOWING My House ON that Particular Lot), and has ever since 1953, so all these years that Lot was never adjoined to the Existing Home Parcel, and therefore I Lost out on all the Exemptions, and Circuit breakers. Is this Legit? I was under the Impression by what I have been told, that the Assessor's Office should have corrected this, so why didn't they? Do I have any Legal recourse for this? Shouldn't the Tax Assessors Office make this Correct, and Correct the excess amounts that were charged against this property?
I contacted the "Person" that Handles these Parcels, and he informed me that their reasons for Not adjoining that Lot to the Home Parcel was because of Deeds? From what I have been told, that's a Poor excuse, as it is supposed to be His Job to correct that for Taxing purposes??
All 3 Lots had been being taxed as Unimproved since 1953 as 1 Parcel. The Remaining Lot out of the 3, contains 21' of my Home(I have a Aerial Plat SHOWING My House ON that Particular Lot), and has ever since 1953, so all these years that Lot was never adjoined to the Existing Home Parcel, and therefore I Lost out on all the Exemptions, and Circuit breakers. Is this Legit? I was under the Impression by what I have been told, that the Assessor's Office should have corrected this, so why didn't they? Do I have any Legal recourse for this? Shouldn't the Tax Assessors Office make this Correct, and Correct the excess amounts that were charged against this property?
I contacted the "Person" that Handles these Parcels, and he informed me that their reasons for Not adjoining that Lot to the Home Parcel was because of Deeds? From what I have been told, that's a Poor excuse, as it is supposed to be His Job to correct that for Taxing purposes??