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yuta
Jul 14, 2006, 01:18 AM
No problem can be solved by the same conscious that's created it.

I'm kind of confused by the sentence above. Please help me with your knowledge.

Q1. Does this sentence make sense?
Q2. Is "conscious" usually used as a noun?
Q3. Do we need to put "by" before "it" to make it sense.
Q4. "that's created it" is used as a adjective for conscious.

shunned
Jul 14, 2006, 04:39 AM
I would rearrange it to say "No problem can be solved by the same frame of mind that created it."

Though I wouldn't say that, it does make sense.

RickJ
Jul 14, 2006, 05:53 AM
1. No.
2. "Conscious" is rarely used as a noun. Shunned offers a good alternative, and there are many others.
3. No.
4. You can't use "that's" in this sentence as "that's" is the same as "that is"... so it makes no sense at all as "that is created it".

Jonegy
Jul 16, 2006, 01:18 PM
4. You can't use "that's" in this sentence as "that's" is the same as "that is"...so it makes no sense at all as "that is created it".

In this case Rick "that's" would mean "that has".

I also would not use the apostophe "s" in a statement (which this appears to be) and would write it out in full ie:... that has created it, - which would have avoided that error.

RickJ
Jul 17, 2006, 03:01 AM
In this case Rick "that's" would mean "that has".

Very interesting. I have never heard of this use nor am I able to find reference to it.

Is "that's" really a legitimate contraction for "that has"?

Jonegy
Jul 17, 2006, 05:45 AM
Hi Rick

I think it's a matter of tense...

" it's (it is) being done at this moment "

" it's (it has) already been done".


As you say - in present tense the statement doesn't make sense - however in past tense...

RickJ
Jul 17, 2006, 06:07 AM
Oh of course. I see now. I have seen and used it as the 2nd example you show.