mbtran2003
Sep 30, 2008, 11:15 PM
3 partners hold title in rental property as follows>Party A 85%, Party B 10%, Party C 5%.
Both party A & party b agree to allow party C to rightfully claim a 100% rental income & expense&depreciation. So all along for the past 6 years Party C has been claiming 100% (income/exp/dep) on party C tax return (Schedule E). Now, they want to transfer the interest of Party C and party B to party A, it posts some problem.
I did some analysis in the spreadsheet attached based on research from IRS pub but that's just my assumption of the correct way to have file the return for all parties. I don't advise all parties to amend the return for all those years. All three parties have now moved back to rental property to reside and they intended to live there for 3 years. Then, they would transfer their interest holding to party A(the rest of the interest 15%). However, Party C would still face a capital gain of 56K assuming the FMV of the property equal to cost basis because all party C files tax return on the rental property and the other two parties did not. Since it's a transfer and not a Sales, is there tax implication for party C. So COMPLICATED, HELP!!
Thanks in advance and a bunch..
Both party A & party b agree to allow party C to rightfully claim a 100% rental income & expense&depreciation. So all along for the past 6 years Party C has been claiming 100% (income/exp/dep) on party C tax return (Schedule E). Now, they want to transfer the interest of Party C and party B to party A, it posts some problem.
I did some analysis in the spreadsheet attached based on research from IRS pub but that's just my assumption of the correct way to have file the return for all parties. I don't advise all parties to amend the return for all those years. All three parties have now moved back to rental property to reside and they intended to live there for 3 years. Then, they would transfer their interest holding to party A(the rest of the interest 15%). However, Party C would still face a capital gain of 56K assuming the FMV of the property equal to cost basis because all party C files tax return on the rental property and the other two parties did not. Since it's a transfer and not a Sales, is there tax implication for party C. So COMPLICATED, HELP!!
Thanks in advance and a bunch..