I have just been diagnosed with Chlamydia after suffering from dyspareunia for about a year. At first I thought the pain was because I was on anti-depressants and really stressed after planning my wedding, and I just wasn't "in the mood" but when it continued after I felt emotionally better, I went and had a trans-vaginal scan which didn't find anything. The pain continued and I went to my GP again and had some swabs done which is how I found out I had Chlamydia.
The question I want to know is how did I get it? My doctor couldn't be very specific other than it was obviously through intercourse. I've been with my current partner (my now husband) for 6 years, and immediately before that I was with my ex-boyfriend for three and a half years.

Is it possible I've had chlamydia for over 6 years and not known about it? Or is it possible my husband has had it since we began dating and hasn't known about it? If this is the case, why did I first start showing the symptoms a year ago and not 6 years ago when I would've caught the disease from him? My GP says that although asymptomatic, the symptoms generally do show at the beginning of the disease and then abate. So, that would suggest I only actually CAUGHT the disease a year ago. And this leads to the line of thought that, well I've not slept with anyone else... :(

Can anyone shed any light? I'm going to go to the STI clinic to get treated, but I could really do with some advice in the meantime.. :o

Men can have the disease that they get from women. Men can then spread the disease to other women. If you want to really get rid of this disease your husband must be treated as well and you will both be free of the disease. If only one partner is treated the other can keep reinfecting.