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kedelbrock
Apr 4, 2008, 08:54 PM
Is there a specific law in California that prohibits landlords from accepting rent from a non-tenant?
Converseley:
"Jim," who's not on a lease, moves in with "Jane," and pays rent (through a check in "Jim's" name). The landlord accepts this rent for 8 + years. Does "Jim" have the same legal right to the apartment as "Jane"?
Is there a specific California law that clarifies this?

excon
Apr 5, 2008, 04:36 AM
Hello k:

No, there's no law. And, because Jim paid, doesn't give him any more rights to the apartment than if she paid.

If I bought a car, and you made the payments for me, would you own my car? No.

excon