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toolguyny
Jan 12, 2008, 10:50 PM
When a property has a first right of refusal clause, an offer is made, the right is not excersisd (refused) but the deal falls through with the person that made the offer... if another offer is made, does it have to go through the "right of refusal again" or once they have refused an offer are they out?

oneguyinohio
Jan 12, 2008, 11:05 PM
I think first right of refusal would be for each offer to sell? There are a lot of variations on the terms. Such as time limits or if the amounts that it is offered for sale changes... it might have to go back to the party holding the first right. You'd have to know specifics of the contract.

toolguyny
Jan 12, 2008, 11:41 PM
Thank you for your response, its actually my parents land, they sold off 25 acres across the road from this other piece in question, however the "first right of refusal" is for a specified 12 acres, and they own over 100 acres on this parcel and want to sell more than the 12 acres, so I'm not even sure how that works, if its not "only" the specific acreage in the right. They have mentione giving me th property, that's another question I guess, if the land is transferred within the family, not sold, does that first right then follow it or is it then negated?

oneguyinohio
Jan 12, 2008, 11:49 PM
You could always ask the attorney who would do the deeds if it will affect the issue... or if anything needs to be done to be able to end the right of first refusal.

Take the contracts with you and you will get a better answer