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patslv1
Nov 8, 2007, 04:14 PM
If a supossed lease is written to be in effect from 2-1-07 to 1-30-07 by error, is it a valid contract or void on its face?

LILL
Nov 8, 2007, 05:19 PM
Lease would still be valid. Just an obvious typo that would hold up in any court.

Fr_Chuck
Nov 8, 2007, 05:50 PM
Most courts would hold it is valid, with merely a minor date issue, and they would normally uphold that it was the intent to be for 2008