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Bobby01
Nov 4, 2007, 12:16 AM
I was going to move into a house with 3 other people in it as a subtenant. The subleasor had me sign a sublease agreement, but unfortunately I was not able to move in on the date specified in the sublease (due to construction delays). When I looked at my copy of the lease the landlord had not signed it yet, and later the subleasor sent me a copy with the landlord's signature at a date after the move in date. Is it not binding if the landlord signed it after the move in date on the sublease?

excon
Nov 4, 2007, 06:09 AM
Hello Bobby:

When the landlord signed it has nothing to do with its legality.

However, if you told us what's going on, we can give better advice than that.

excon

s_cianci
Nov 4, 2007, 07:04 AM
It should be binding from whatever date is indicated on the lease. If you paid a rent advance based on the original intended "move-in" date but were delayed and that delay is subsequently reflected on the lease, then the rent should be prorated to the actual date of move-in or at least the date that's on your lease. That should mean getting back a bigger chunk of your deposits when you move out ; be sure to get it all in writing.