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samuelluvsliz
Aug 31, 2007, 07:33 AM
I just refinanced with my husband but the loan is under only my name because I had better credit. My husband however did sign some of the loan documents. How then could I see if the loan also applys to him if my name is the only one that is the loan?

Dr D
Aug 31, 2007, 08:02 AM
Pull out your loan papers and see if your husband signed the Note. Also see if he signed the Deed of Trust or Realty Mortgage that secures the note. If he signed those instruments he is on the loan, if not, he is not on the loan. He may have signed a Disclaimer Deed, which mean that he is not on title to the property, and has no interest in it. Recently, a few lenders have allowed a Non-Borrower Spouse to be on the deed to the property. If this is the case, he may have had to sign some of the documents to accomplish this.

ScottGem
Aug 31, 2007, 08:20 AM
What makes you think he's NOT on the mortgage. Just because the payment notices come in your name doesn't mean he isn't.

DianeV Sr Loan Officer
Sep 1, 2007, 10:46 PM
You need to scrutinize your closing documents. Your lender may have put him on the mortgage but not the note. In that case, he acknowledges that the house is collateral for the mortgage but he is not obligated on the note to pay the loan. Some mortgage programs allow that. Or he may have just signed the deed. The note will be in both names if he is responsible for the mortgage.