helper05
Aug 30, 2007, 06:06 PM
Ok, this is going to be a long one. I would really like to hear from someone who really knows the legal system well. This question particularly pertains to the Calvin Harris case in NY. Supposedly what wsa said happened was he killed his wife the day of the terrorists attacks, if you want to know more details, try this link: Cal Harris Back in Court | WBNG-TV | Local Top Stories (http://www.wbng.com/news/local/2295026.html)
Anyway, what I was wondering is, how could they say he is guilty when they didn't find her body, or even a murder weapon? I thought there had to be at least one of those things to claim someone being guilty of murder. How does that go? Does it seem like a conflict of interest? So many people in that area know of his tempers, so they automatically say guilty?
Anyway, what I was wondering is, how could they say he is guilty when they didn't find her body, or even a murder weapon? I thought there had to be at least one of those things to claim someone being guilty of murder. How does that go? Does it seem like a conflict of interest? So many people in that area know of his tempers, so they automatically say guilty?