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Kim_Boyd
Jul 28, 2007, 03:45 PM
If Sales and Income were overstated for a period, wouldn't I find the "dangling debit" in the Accounts Receivable? And why would it not be found in the Inventory account?

I know it has to be in an Asset account, but I am confused. Wouldn't you have more inventory than you were supposed to according to Sales and Cost of goods sold?

Please explain. Thanks for any help.
Kim

bhet
Jul 28, 2007, 09:22 PM
If income and sales is ovestted then, either the cash account or account receivable is also ovestated.

conroypi
Jul 30, 2007, 09:57 PM
Bhet is correct. In addition, you can have overstated income in a period without affecting Inventory. It depends on which transaction created the overstatement. For example, was there a booking error where an equity transaction was expensed? For example, a draw to a partner in a business should run through equity on the balance sheet and not payroll on the profit and loss, even if processed through a third-party payroll company. If this was done, your cash would be correct (credited), your net income would be overstated from the erroneous expense (debited) in that period and inventory is not affected. This could also happen if you have a misdated reimbursement or refund for a non-inventory item posted in the wrong period. Your revenue (credit) and your cash (debit) would be overstated. Make sure to identify the cause because multiple accounts may be affected and then fix your internal process for that transaction to add a control or "double-check" so it cannot be repeated.