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TamraS
Jul 28, 2007, 09:32 AM
I moved from MD to MO. I had a house lease in MD that is the subject of the lawsuit by the owner against me. I have moved 9 months ago to MO and am now being served,

Does MD still have personal jurisdiction over me, although I never go there or do business anymore.

excon
Jul 28, 2007, 09:41 AM
Hello Tamra:

No, but you did do business there and that's the business you're being sued over. If you don't appear, they'll get a judgment against you and it can certainly be served in MO.

excon

TamraS
Jul 28, 2007, 09:49 AM
When is my business through, can't I file a motion for dismissal on jurisidiction and have them move to MO to sue me?

excon
Jul 28, 2007, 09:59 AM
Hello again, Tamra:

Well of course you do, but a lawsuit should be heard in the jurisdiction where the breach occurred. Mo laws aren't the same, and Mo judges don't know how to administer other states laws.

You're business there is finished when the statute of limitations expires. That's probably 3 years, but I'm guessing.

You can certainly ask for a dismissal, and of course, I would. But, I don't think it will be granted on those grounds. You need to find something else.

excon

PS> Let's keep the discussion public. That way you can get other peoples ideas too.

s_cianci
Jul 31, 2007, 08:49 AM
They have jurisdiction over the case concerning the house in question. They can summon you to court in MD to answer the complaint and they can obtain a judgement against you. If they win, they can garnish your wages, attach your bank accounts, etc. even if these are based in MO.