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precious0980
May 4, 2007, 12:57 PM
I'm married to my husband more than 2 years now. Last year we paid it off his house. A few day ago we talked about buying a share of his ex-wife in the house. My question is, Is my husband ex-wife is entitled to the total amount of the house or she is just only entitled to the equity during there divorced?

GV70
May 5, 2007, 03:40 AM
I'm married to my husband more than 2 years now. Last year we paid it off his house. A few day ago we talked about buying a share of his ex-wife in the house. My question is, Is my husband ex-wife is entitled to the total amount of the house or she is just only entitled to the equity during there divorced?
It has to be cleared in their divorce act...

AW805
May 6, 2007, 03:10 PM
You need to take a look at their divorce decree. I'm surprised this hasn't already been taken care of through the divorce proceedings. Meaning, he may have been required to pay her 1/2 of the equity at the time of the divorce. However, there may be a clause in the decree that states upon resale she will receive a portion of the proceeds or maybe they agreed that she would receive nothing and her named should have been removed from title. Bottom line, read the divorce decree.

precious0980
Feb 21, 2008, 08:14 AM
Their divorce decree it say's: she is willing to quit claim as long as my husabnd will make a payment and pay her part. But during their divorce my husband still owe the house and his the one who make the payment every month until we paid off 2 years ago.