Paddinton
May 14, 2016, 05:20 AM
I've recently been required to submit to periodic blood testing, for professional licensing purposes, due to a diagnosis of harmful use of alcohol.
I had a blood draw on 5 Feb, having last consumed alcohol on NY Eve. I had a fair bit over the evening (I was not required to be abstinent at this point), and then completely stopped drinking. Before that, I'd had a fair bit on Christmas Day, but nothing in between.
My blood test came back fine, as I expected. They'd tested for CDT, GGT, AST, ALT and PEth. My question(s) is, having read up on the subject, how could my PEth level be 28 micro grammes/ L, when I hadn't had a drink for 35 days? More curiously, why does the report say abstinence confirmed, when a lot of people seem to be talking of 20 ng/ml (the same as 28 mg/L right?) as a positive result.
a) Surely my PEth level should have been lower/non-existent?
b) Surely the 28 mg/L does not confirm abstinence (although I was)?
I had a blood draw on 5 Feb, having last consumed alcohol on NY Eve. I had a fair bit over the evening (I was not required to be abstinent at this point), and then completely stopped drinking. Before that, I'd had a fair bit on Christmas Day, but nothing in between.
My blood test came back fine, as I expected. They'd tested for CDT, GGT, AST, ALT and PEth. My question(s) is, having read up on the subject, how could my PEth level be 28 micro grammes/ L, when I hadn't had a drink for 35 days? More curiously, why does the report say abstinence confirmed, when a lot of people seem to be talking of 20 ng/ml (the same as 28 mg/L right?) as a positive result.
a) Surely my PEth level should have been lower/non-existent?
b) Surely the 28 mg/L does not confirm abstinence (although I was)?