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A_Helal
Nov 10, 2015, 11:19 AM
my question in the photo

47958

ebaines
Nov 10, 2015, 02:01 PM
Looks like the question is incomplete. In this part:

"and \frac {\partial F(x+ct)}{\partial t} at (t=0).."

shouldn't that partial derivative be equal to something?

A_Helal
Nov 10, 2015, 02:06 PM
no I just want to show that the function is partial derivative and it will be total when t = 0

A_Helal
Nov 10, 2015, 02:15 PM
the question in an other way
If I have a function of x and t it's derivative with respect to t in case of t=0 is equal to it's dervative with respect to x why ? Why not ?

ebaines
Nov 10, 2015, 03:00 PM
Consider the total derivates with respect to x and t:

\frac {dF}{dt}= \frac {\partial F}{\partial t} + \frac {\partial F}{\partial x}\frac {dx}{dt}

\frac {dF}{dx}= \frac {\partial F}{\partial x} + \frac {\partial F}{\partial t}\frac {dt}{dx}

If these are equal then

\frac {\partial F}{\partial t} + \frac {\partial F}{\partial x}\frac {dx}{dt} =\frac {\partial F}{\partial x} + \frac {\partial F}{\partial t}\frac {dt}{dx}


This could be true if \frac {dx}{dt} = \frac {dt}{dx} = 1