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elliotness121
Mar 27, 2007, 10:02 AM
"To what extent should an owner of a bar, restaurant, or any other commercial establishment that dispenses alcoholic beverages be legally responsible for any injuries or other adverse consequences incurred or sustained by a patron or customer who has shown signs of intoxication but has been served anyway?"

Does anyone know the answer to this question. Sorry, I might have put in in the wrong section. This is Ontario, Canada by the way.

ScottGem
Mar 27, 2007, 10:07 AM
That depends on local laws. Many areas have passed laws making the establishment responsible, to some extent.

excon
Mar 27, 2007, 10:12 AM
Hello elliot:

Well of course, they shouldn't, but here in the US they do. Canada is more of a nanny state than the US is, so I'll bet they do up there too.

I'd be damn happy to hear they don't, though. We've got some cannuks here who'll be able to tell both you and me what's up.

excon