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Rickeeta55
Jan 24, 2013, 06:09 PM
I have been working for 2 weeks and expected a paycheck. I am biweekly. I was told that I have to wait 2 pay periods (4 weeks) to get paid. I'm in Connecticut. Is this legal?

ballengerb1
Jan 24, 2013, 06:16 PM
Yes it is almost universal that you would wait two weeks for a check after a pay period ends. IE if you worked March 1-15 you would not expect a check on the 15th would you? Payroll needs time to calclate and figure if you worked every one of those 10 days. Pay rolls are a week later but most frequently two weeks later. This should have been explained to you in writing at the time of your hiring. Were you not given a packet of information when you started?

Rickeeta55
Jan 24, 2013, 06:21 PM
Yes it is almost universal that you would wait two weeks for a check after a pay period ends. IE if you worked March 1-15 you would not expect a check on the 15th would you??time to calclate and figure if you worked every one of those 10 days. Pay rolls are a week later but most frequently two weeks later. This should have been explained to you in writing at the time of your hiring. Were you not given a packet of information when you started?
No I was not told and In fact this is my second time working for this company. I was told that this is a new policy because previously all salaried employees were paid full salary wages on the next pay date despite how many hours they worked. But thanks for clarifying.

ballengerb1
Jan 24, 2013, 06:27 PM
If by "salaried employees were paid full salary wages on the next pay date " you mean you'd be paid on the 15th I would be greatly surprised. I have been in HR for decades and never seen this. I can't see how a company could do this considering there are many factors that could alter a salary. Places I have worked would dock a person who did not call in sick prior to an absence, for example.

Rickeeta55
Jan 24, 2013, 06:34 PM
If by "salaried employees were paid full salary wages on the next pay date " you mean you'd be paid on the 15th I would be greatly surprised. I have been in HR for decades and never seen this. I can't see how a company could do this considering there are many factors that could alter a salary. Places I have worked would dock a person who did not call in sick prior to an absence, for example.
I am not sure it looks like I was misinformed but you helped to clarify it. Thanks.