scotty321
Jan 26, 2012, 08:32 AM
Hello, I am a 24 year old female. My husband and I have been together for 5 years and we just recently got married. About 4 years ago, I had a miscarriage at 5 weeks and my husband was so devastated that he wanted to refrain from sexual intercourse. We had just started having sexual intercourse again two weeks ago. A couple of days after having intercourse I started spotting and it got up to a medium flow for two days before stopping. The intercourse was not painful after having been so long, and I would think the bleeding would have been heavier. My period (if it was my period) was 4 days early and lasted only 3 total days with mostly spotting. My cycle's are always 28 days with 4 days of heavy flow and have been for 8 years. Four days ago we had intercourse again, but it was very painful when he was entering and we stopped just a couple of minutes later. For the next two days after that, it would hurt when I wiped but not when I was urinating or anything. My question is why was it so painful the second time and could it possibly be something serious or just a tear? And wouldn't bleeding be heavy after abstaining for so long combined with the (possible) period. If it wasn't a period then it is 38 days into my cycle without a period.