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paraclete
Oct 31, 2011, 05:14 PM
Things are becoming more bizairre. In a new twist on safe storage a man carries his gun in his prosthesis. He wouldn't have been caught if it wasn't that he was in hospital for another amputation, perhaps if the job got botched he could settle his accounts immediately
Gun find in fake leg places hospital in lockdown (http://www.smh.com.au/nsw/gun-find-in-fake-leg-places-hospital-in-lockdown-20111101-1msq5.html)

tomder55
Nov 1, 2011, 05:53 AM
What ? One would think your gun laws would prevent the illegal carrying of a gun loaded with illegal bullets .

TUT317
Nov 1, 2011, 02:02 PM
What ? One would think your gun laws would prevent the illegal carrying of a gun loaded with illegal bullets .

Hi Tom,

I guess there will always be people who are prepared to run the risk and break the law.

Tut

paraclete
Nov 1, 2011, 02:15 PM
You could say this fellow shot himself in the foot

Tom I though you of all people would know laws don't prevent illegal actions, they just give the police and politicians something to do

cdad
Nov 1, 2011, 06:23 PM
You could say this fellow shot himself in the foot

Tom I though you of all people would know laws don't prevent illegal actions, they just give the police and politicians something to do

Then lets hope he has a leg to stand on after its all over!!

tomder55
Nov 2, 2011, 02:58 AM
Sorry left the sarcasm font off... corrected

paraclete
Nov 2, 2011, 02:12 PM
It's all right Tom we read between the lines, you saw my response of course. We have good laws, Tom, and responsible people respond positively, however outlaws do what outlaws do no matter where they are, but when they are caught there are laws they can be charged under.

Our laws are for the benefit of the people, not the corporations, who in this place, are non persons

tomder55
Nov 3, 2011, 06:25 AM
So in other words you agree with this...

if guns are outlawed then only outlaws will have guns.

NeedKarma
Nov 3, 2011, 07:23 AM
so in other words you agree with this ....

if guns are outlawed then only outlaws will have guns.It's a simplistic argument for simplistic people.

tomder55
Nov 3, 2011, 07:34 AM
And yet there is a whole lot of truth to it.

paraclete
Nov 3, 2011, 12:35 PM
so in other words you agree with this ....

if guns are outlawed then only outlaws will have guns.

Look Tom outlaws don't need guns to murder people they can use bollard posts
Comanchero bikie boss convicted of airport murder of Hells Angels member | Herald Sun (http://www.heraldsun.com.au/news/more-news/bikie-boss-convicted-of-airport-murder/story-fn7x8me2-1226183983874)
So that agrument doesn't wash as a reason why guns should be available. You see we are not brainwashed by the NRA

tomder55
Nov 3, 2011, 03:11 PM
I hear the sale of Louisville sluggers is booming in China. The people have no other means of defending themselves and the bats have a nice ping sound when they connect with skull.
Baseball bat is a hit as a defensive weapon in China - Los Angeles Times (http://articles.latimes.com/2011/nov/01/business/la-fi-china-baseball-bats-20111102)

You cannot deprive people of their basic right to self defense. You may think you are making your population safer by banning guns ,but you are not..

paraclete
Nov 3, 2011, 03:15 PM
The Chinese do a nice line in machettees Tom

TUT317
Nov 3, 2011, 08:31 PM
You may think you are making your population safer by banning guns ,but you are not ..

Hi Tom.

Well, we actually are.

You can compare the stats any way you like but it is obvious which country is the safest in those terms.

Tut

paraclete
Nov 3, 2011, 09:26 PM
Hi Tom.

Well, we actually are.

You can compare the stats any way you like but it is obvious which country is the safest in those terms.

Tut

Tut is right Tom deaths from guns halved in Australia after we destroyed 700,000 weapons. Australia has one fifth the rate of deaths from firearms than is the rate in the US, so Tom I suggest you stick that in your NRA and smoke it

TUT317
Nov 4, 2011, 12:52 AM
Tut is right Tom deaths from guns halved in Australia after we destroyed 700,000 weapons. Australia has one fifth the rate of deaths from firearms than is the rate in the US, so Tom I suggest you stick that in your NRA and smoke it


Tom, my suggestion is that we change the subject.

Tut

tomder55
Nov 4, 2011, 04:47 AM
Hi Tom.

Well, we actually are.

You can compare the stats any way you like but it is obvious which country is the safest in those terms.

Tut

Tell me how you laws prevented this guy from carrying a gun into a hospital ?

TUT317
Nov 4, 2011, 05:11 AM
tell me how you laws prevented this guy from carrying a gun into a hospital ?



Hi Tom,

They didn't

Tut

tomder55
Nov 4, 2011, 05:14 AM
Exactly... now it's time to change the subject.

TUT317
Nov 4, 2011, 05:22 AM
exactly ... now it's time to change the subject.


Hi Tom,

For once I am lost for words. Yes, it is time to change the subject.

Tut

smoothy
Nov 4, 2011, 03:51 PM
Guns don't kill people... criminals do.

I've owned guns my entire life and not once in all that time has one gotten up and ever threatened me.

paraclete
Nov 4, 2011, 04:04 PM
Another tired argument from the right side of town.

I have seen enough missuse of guns in my lifetime to know just having them around the house is dangerous and basically unnecessary.

Don't be a pawn in the NRA game

smoothy
Nov 4, 2011, 05:13 PM
Unlike you guys... we have a basic constitutional right to own them.

They aren't dangerous. And they are quite necessary.

#1 because its your right to protect your property and family from criminals by any means necessary.

#2 A well armed public... isn't going to stand for any idiot and his flunkies declaring themselves president for life.

Disarming the public was one of the first actions taken by Adolf Hitler.

paraclete
Nov 4, 2011, 07:37 PM
Sad, smoothy, that you haven't developed beyond a frontier mentality. Are them injuns massing in them there hills? Perhaps the United States will invade its own territory again to oust those democrats

smoothy
Nov 4, 2011, 07:47 PM
Sad, smoothy, that you haven't developed beyond a frontier mentality. are them injuns massing in them there hills? perhaps the United States will invade its own territory again to oust those democrats

You have to understand our Constitution and bill of rights and what it means to us to understand what I said.

The right to own guns and self defense is one of our most basic right as American Citizens.

One that can't be simple taken away to suit anyone's agenda or beliefs without calling into question every other right we have. And without that one... there is nothing left to stop any group from taking ALL the rest away in an instant.

And its not about Indians... its about drug dealers, drug addicts, thieves, rapists, murderers and those who don't follow the law.

Cops are rarely there to protect anyone from it happening... they always show up when its already too late.

We are legally and morally entitled to self defense... in many cases right up to and including killing the attacker in certain situations. Like inside your home.

The only Governments that fear an armed populous... are governments that would be quick to take advantage of an unarmed one.

We don't count on our leaders ALLOWING us to have certain rights... subject to their whims... as is common in most countries.

We have OUR rights enumerated and our leaders CAN'T take them away on a whim... its not their place to determine what they are.

TUT317
Nov 4, 2011, 11:32 PM
I've owned guns my entire life and not once in all that time has one gotten up and ever threatened me.


Of course not. They have to be attached to a hand (usually)

smoothy
Nov 7, 2011, 06:41 AM
Of course not. They have to be attached to a hand (usually)

Exactly... and watch most news storys about how a certain kind of gun killed someone...

I've yet to see a gun become animated and even cross the room much less kill anyone.

Never mind the fact that they throw around "Assult Weapon" when its NOT in most cases...

Assult weapons are fully automatic or selective fire... and those are considered Class III firearms and take a special license.

Registered Cass III firearms are rarely ever invovled in crimes. 99.99+% that are, are just semi-automatic or bolt action.

paraclete
Nov 7, 2011, 02:03 PM
Registered Cass III firearms are rarely ever invovled in crimes. 99.99+% that are, are just semi-automatic or bolt action.

Okay so remove these from the population, you are hung up on your constitution but you forget to read all of it, the gun provision is about militia in days when there was little or no standing army, not vigilante action. They had good reason for holding weapons in those days which are no longer an issue. You have just proven the argument to make these weapons hard to get.

smoothy
Nov 7, 2011, 05:15 PM
Okay so remove these from the population, you are hung up on your constitution but you forget to read all of it, the gun provision is about militia in days when there was little or no standing army, not vigilante action. They had good reason for holding weapons in those days which are no longer an issue. You have just proven the argument to make these weapons hard to get.

That's not how its read in the context of the period it was written.

And its not subject to random interpretation.

Militia isn't Military, Armies existed back then and are not part of that or it would have said ARMY.

Its armed individuals... and that's how its ALWAYS been interpreted as since the day it was signed. Because that's what it says, and that's what was intended.

Any lunatic party that tries to take it away will be met with an armed revolt of the people. Not maybe... they certainly Will.

TUT317
Nov 7, 2011, 06:08 PM
Exactly...and watch most news storys about how a certain kind of gun killed someone....

I've yet to see a gun become animated and even cross the room much less kill anyone.

Never mind the fact that they throw around "Assult Weapon" when its NOT in most cases....

Assult weapons are fully automatic or selective fire....and those are considered Class III firearms and take a special liscense.

Registered Cass III firearms are rarely ever invovled in crimes. 99.99+% that are, are just semi-automatic or bolt action.


Hi smoothy,

I don't know anything about guns.

My comment was in relation to your misplaced modifier. I thought you might have seen the funny side of saying that, one(gun) has never goten up and threatened you.

I wasn't alluding to anything else.


Tut

smoothy
Nov 7, 2011, 06:30 PM
Hi smoothy,

I don't know anything about guns.

My comment was in relation to your misplaced modifier. I thought you might have seen the funny side of saying that, one(gun) has never goten up and threatened you.

I wasn't alluding to anything else.


Tut

Ok... my mistake then... I missed that entirely. :o Had my iron in too many fires so to speak.

paraclete
Nov 7, 2011, 11:47 PM
Militia isn't Military, Armies existed back then and are not part of that or it would have said ARMY.

.

Getting into the context of the american revolution and that is where the constitution sprang from, the revolution was basically fought by militia on one side until the rebels were able to put together an army, so obviously those who wrote the constitution thought militia important and didn't want to exclude the possibility that these forces would be available in what was still an uncertain world. Today militia have little purpose in your country, their descendants, the citizen soldier, have been incorporated in the army as your national guard.

tomder55
Nov 8, 2011, 05:38 AM
Given the revolutionary rationale ,an armed citizenry is consistent with their distrust of governments ;especially central one with strong executive authority.
Part of the reason of course was the right of people to protect themselves and their property . But they also meant for "the people" to protect themselves against the government . A militia that is an arm of the government defeats that purpose . So no , the national guard would not be consistent with their idea of militia.

paraclete
Nov 8, 2011, 02:06 PM
I didn't say it was consistent, Tom, what I said was that the need for militia has passed, it has been superceded by a more convenient method.

I have no doubt the use of the executive order is troubling in your situation. That arises out of the failure of eighteenth century ideas to provide a government that can actually make a decision, but the personal holding of arms should not be seen as a remedy to that

tomder55
Nov 8, 2011, 04:52 PM
Fortunately by far the largest need is to protect oneself ;family and property. Normally the policing authority shows up after the need for protection has passed. A free person has the right to self defense .

paraclete
Nov 8, 2011, 06:17 PM
Indeed Tom and clubs and knives do equally well, a gun in hand of many is an invitation for a perpretrator to arm themselves and get in first. Sadly, few people see preservation of their own life ahead of their possessions.

I live in a society where gun ownership is neither an issue or popular. Sure there is violence here, but it is rare to hear of murder or injury which didn't involve criminals on both sides, whereas in your society death by gunshot is many times the rate it is here. Now either you have more criminals per head of population, a distinct possibility, or the reasons given for gun ownership are falacious

TUT317
Nov 9, 2011, 12:49 AM
Now either you have more criminals per head of population, a distinct possibility, or the reasons given for gun ownership are falacious

Hi Clete,

The answer to this question is very clear, Americans have the highest individual to gun ratio in the developed world. Something like for every 100 people almost 90 own a gun of some description.

The bottom line is that the statistics reflects this ratio. End of story



Tut

smoothy
Nov 9, 2011, 07:28 AM
I didn't say it was consistent, Tom, what I said was that the need for militia has passed, it has been superceded by a more convenient method.

I have no doubt the use of the executive order is troubling in your situation. That arises out of the failure of eighteenth century ideas to provide a government that can actually make a decision, but the personal holding of arms should not be seen as a remedy to that

That period has never passed. Not even for us. As long as you have one extremist group that's willing to take by force what someone has worked to earn to give to someone who didn't but is in their favor... that threat would still exist.

The personal holding of arms is a means of last resort for a government that gets so far out of control, they decide the constitution is just a piece of paper and THEY will decide what you can or can't do. And that THEY will decide what will be in any constitution THEY decide to impose on the people.

Its not a stretch because its happened too many times in too many places...

HUGO CHAVEZ is a contemporary example of such a thing.

paraclete
Nov 9, 2011, 02:01 PM
Chavez was elected by popular vote, however much you hate his politics you must remember that. In any case Venezuela is not the United States and the scenario you speak of is fantasy. If things get that out of hand militia will not save you

tomder55
Nov 9, 2011, 07:46 PM
Yes and Hitler was voted in too. Chavez has dismantled the democratic institutions .
The scenario is quite real. One person one vote one time is a template well established by start up tyrannies.

paraclete
Nov 9, 2011, 08:52 PM
Tom I would be much more concerned about your own democratic institutions than being concerned about the governance of other nations.

I haven't heard you complain about Putin yet, will you want to intervene if he is elected President again?

TUT317
Nov 9, 2011, 09:38 PM
Yes and Hitler was voted in too. Chavez has dismantled the democratic institutions .
The scenario is quite real. One person one vote one time is a template well established by start up tyrannies.


Hi Tom,

These countries were are notoriously unstable. So any comparison is difficult.

The problems associated with WW1 Germany and a country that was largely agrarian up until the 1920's.

Can you come up with a different example?

Tut

tomder55
Nov 10, 2011, 03:10 AM
Tut of course if the people are content and the country is stable then there is a good chance the people would have no need to protect themselves from the government . So the comparison only applies to nations that are unstable I would think.
Is there that possibility here ? Who knows ? Was Bismark Germany (Prussia) considered a stable nation before WWI ?

tomder55
Nov 10, 2011, 03:13 AM
Tom I would be much more concerned about your own democratic institutions than being concerned about the governance of other nations.

I haven't heard you complain about Putin yet, will you want to intervene if he is elected President again?

We aren't talking about intervention here. We are talking about a free person's right to defend themselves against all threats... including their own national government if needed. Clearly if our government always adheres to the Constitution then the probability of the need decreases.

paraclete
Nov 10, 2011, 04:10 AM
Why waste time Tut he just wants to justify his eighteenth century constitution

tomder55
Nov 10, 2011, 04:38 AM
I would say that a Constitution amended 27 times is not an 18th century construct anymore .

If the people want to reverse the
2nd amendment there are provisions to do so. It won't be the 1st amendment reversed .

TUT317
Nov 10, 2011, 05:54 AM
I would say that a Constitution amended 27 times is not an 18th century construct anymore .

If the people want to reverse the
2nd amendment there are provisions to do so. It won't be the 1st amendment reversed .

Hi Tom,

This is only true if you don't view your constitution as an 18 century construct amended 27 times. You tend to go for the 18 and 19th historical exemplary illustrations. Any particular reason for this?

Tut

smoothy
Nov 10, 2011, 06:01 AM
Because its important NOT to lose touch with the original intent of the document...

That is part of the strength of it... every swinging can't pick whatever interpretation they want, and its not subject to every whim of the moment.

TUT317
Nov 10, 2011, 06:22 AM
Because its important NOT to lose touch with the original intent of the document...

That is part of the strength of it....every swinging can't pick whatever interpretation they want, and its not subject to every whim of the moment.



Seems to be some disagreement here.

Which is it?

smoothy
Nov 10, 2011, 06:28 AM
Seems to be some disagreement here.

Which is it?

Except for the fact you can't use a derivative of the name Richard... D I c k that was entered immediately after "swinging"... because it was auto censored... which left my post disjointed.

It means the constitution CAN be amended through a specific process that discourages whims of the day from changing it... but real, honest issues can.

It is a document written in plain English... not legalese, it means what it says... and because it does, one has to consider the terminology and thought processes of the writers. They didn't mince words or twist the meanings of them, like Bill Clintons famous comment "it depends on what the definition of the word IS is."

TUT317
Nov 10, 2011, 06:44 AM
except for the fact you can't use a derivitive of the name Richard ... D i c k that was entered immediately after "swinging"....because it was auto censored...which left my post disjointed.

It means the constitution CAN be amended through a specific process that discourages whims of the day from changing it...but real, honest issues can.

It is a document writen in plain English...not legalese, it means what it says.... and because it does, one has to consider the terminology and thought processes of the writers. They didn't mince words or twist the meanings of them, like Bill Clintons famous comment "it depends on what the definition of the word IS is."




Was language more precise now than what it was then?


Tut

TUT317
Nov 10, 2011, 06:45 AM
except for the fact you can't use a derivitive of the name Richard ... D i c k that was entered immediately after "swinging"....because it was auto censored...which left my post disjointed.

It means the constitution CAN be amended through a specific process that discourages whims of the day from changing it...but real, honest issues can.

It is a document writen in plain English...not legalese, it means what it says.... and because it does, one has to consider the terminology and thought processes of the writers. They didn't mince words or twist the meanings of them, like Bill Clintons famous comment "it depends on what the definition of the word IS is."


Was language more precise then than it is now?


Tut

TUT317
Nov 10, 2011, 06:49 AM
Was language more precise then than it is now?


Tut



Sorry about the double post.

Which is it? The second one.

Tut

tomder55
Nov 10, 2011, 08:16 AM
The founders left plenty of support documentation to get a clear definition as to their rationale ,and what they were trying to accomplish .

The amendments did not come out of thin air either . There is a public record of the debates before they were passed .

Therefore it is easy to determine what is the original intent regardless of the changes in the language over the years.

The constitution has been amended 27 times as the people have determined it is required . That is why it has lasted as a governing document for 223 years .

smoothy
Nov 10, 2011, 10:06 AM
Was language more precise now than what it was then?


Tut

Sorry... Issues at work I can't speak about on a forum.

They weren't prone to the degree of Bullsh*t and smoke and mirrors then as politicians are today.

It was written so every man and woman could understand it...


If you write it in anything like Ancient Sumarian... you are always at the mercy of someone doing the translation with an agenda telling you something other than what it actually says.

paraclete
Nov 10, 2011, 01:01 PM
We aren't talking about intervention here. We are talking about a free person's right to defend themselves against all threats ....including their own national government if needed. Clearly if our government always adheres to the Constitution then the probability of the need decreases.

Clearly Tom that is a nonsense, since the constitution did not protect the right of southerners to defend themselves in the mid eighteen hundreds from a government set on invading its own territory.

smoothy
Nov 10, 2011, 01:12 PM
Clearly Tom that is a nonsense, since the constitution did not protect the right of southerners to defend themselves in the mid eighteen hundreds from a government set on invading its own territory.

That was a Civil war because those southerners decided they didn't want to be part of the same country the northerners were for a number of reasons.

The Political correctness movement wants to pretend it was about freeing slaves... that was done more to punish the south than for any other reason.

paraclete
Nov 10, 2011, 02:52 PM
Yes a true Republicans v Democrats conflict. Unresolvable ideological differences, in fact, a free the slaves conflict with the no slavers on the other side this time. No compromise, does any of this sound familiar?

tomder55
Nov 10, 2011, 05:00 PM
I beg to differ . It was always about slavery . I also beg to differ in that there is absolutely NO provision in the Constitution for the disolution of the union.

Further ; the northern states took NO action against the Southern insurrection until the southern states attacked a Federal fort.
I give you General and President US Grant's thoughts on the subject from his autobiography.



Doubtless the founders of our government, the majority of them at least, regarded the confederation of the colonies as an experiment. Each colony considered itself a separate government; that the confederation was for mutual protection against a foreign foe, and the prevention of strife and war among themselves.

If there had been a desire on the part of any single State to withdraw from the compact at any time while the number of States was limited to the original thirteen, I do not suppose there would have been any to contest the right, no matter how much the determination might have been regretted. The problem changed on the ratification of the Constitution by all the colonies; it changed still more when amendments were added; and if the right of any one State to withdraw continued to exist at all after the ratification of the Constitution, it certainly ceased on the formation of new States, at least so far as the new States themselves were concerned. It was never possessed at all by Florida or the States west of the Mississippi, all of which were purchased by the treasury of the entire nation. Texas and the territory brought into the Union in consequence of annexation, were purchased with both blood and treasure; and Texas, with a domain greater than that of any European state except Russia, was permitted to retain as state property all the public lands within its borders. It would have been ingratitude and injustice of the most flagrant sort for this State to withdraw from the Union after all that had been spent and done to introduce her; yet, if separation had actually occurred, Texas must necessarily have gone with the South, both on account of her institutions and her geographical position. Secession was illogical as well as impracticable; it was revolution.

Now, the right of revolution is an inherent one. When people are oppressed by their government, it is a natural right they enjoy to relieve themselves of the oppression, if they are strong enough, either by withdrawal from it, or by overthrowing it and substituting a government more acceptable. But any people or part of a people who resort to this remedy, stake their lives, their property, and every claim for protection given by citizenship—on the issue. Victory, or the conditions imposed by the conqueror—must be the result.

In the case of the war between the States it would have been the exact truth if the South had said,—"We do not want to live with you Northern people any longer; we know our institution of slavery is obnoxious to you, and, as you are growing numerically stronger than we, it may at some time in the future be endangered. So long as you permitted us to control the government, and with the aid of a few friends at the North to enact laws constituting your section a guard against the escape of our property, we were willing to live with you. You have been submissive to our rule heretofore; but it looks now as if you did not intend to continue so, and we will remain in the Union no longer."
...

The cause of the great War of the Rebellion against the United Status will have to be attributed to slavery. For some years before the war began it was a trite saying among some politicians that "A state half slave and half free cannot exist." All must become slave or all free, or the state will go down. I took no part myself in any such view of the case at the time, but since the war is over, reviewing the whole question, I have come to the conclusion that the saying is quite true.

Slavery was an institution that required unusual guarantees for its security wherever it existed; and in a country like ours where the larger portion of it was free territory inhabited by an intelligent and well-to-do population, the people would naturally have but little sympathy with demands upon them for its protection.

Hence the people of the South were dependent upon keeping control of the general government to secure the perpetuation of their favorite institution.

They were enabled to maintain this control long after the States where slavery existed had ceased to have the controlling power, through the assistance they received from odd men here and there throughout the Northern States.

[B]They saw their power waning, and this led them to encroach upon the prerogatives and independence of the Northern States by enacting such laws as the Fugitive Slave Law. By this law every Northern man was obliged, when properly summoned, to turn out and help apprehend the runaway slave of a Southern man. Northern marshals became slave-catchers, and Northern courts had to contribute to the support and protection of the institution.

As Grant correctly pointed out ;what the South did was revolution... for which they were defeated . Now that revolution may have some rationale in the wording of our Declaration of Independence except for this caveat. For the South to be honest about their reason ;they would've had to admit that their revolution was NOT about liberty ;but the continuance of a 'peculiar institution' that brutally enslaved people .

tomder55
Nov 10, 2011, 05:56 PM
Yes a true Republicans v Democrats conflict. Unresolvable ideological differences, in fact, a free the slaves conflict with the no slavers on the other side this time. No compromise, does any of this sound familiar?

Again the wrong reading of our history. Between the founding and the Civil War there were a number of compromises . The most prominent was the Missouri compromise . Perhaps that formula would've held. But ;the Supreme Court drove the nail in any further such grand bargains when they decided the Dredd Scott decision which effectively nullified the Missouri compromise.
As Grant pointed out that led to the intollerable situation where a free northern man was compelled to hunt down fugitive slaves even if that person was morally opposed to slavery.

The real reason the south left was because the influx of immigrants in the North would've eventually given the north the numbers to force the abolition issue.

So the southern 'gentlemen ' concocted a number of periferial causes that all tied in directly to their ability to enslave people.

tomder55
Nov 10, 2011, 05:59 PM
That was a Civil war because those southerners decided they didn't want to be part of the same country the northerners were for a number of reasons.

The Political correctness movement wants to pretend it was about freeing slaves....that was done more to punish the south than for any other reason.

Funny from someone who has an avatar of William T Sherman.

paraclete
Nov 10, 2011, 06:06 PM
Tom as I recall the War started as a result of the provocative acts of the US President in sending a naval force to reinforce the fort. Sth Carolina had succeeded months earlier and wanted the US forces to withdraw. So if there was a war to be fought it was between Sth Carolina and the US and others should not have been brought into it, but were as soon as it became apparent land forces were to move through other states sympathetic to the southern cause.

The prudent course of action would have been to remove the forces from the fort, forces who had unilaterally taken over the fort, and negotiate, rather than escalate the conflict

tomder55
Nov 10, 2011, 06:11 PM
Nonsense . Fort Sumter was US property ;and South Carolina was in rebellion... it was not independent from the US.

paraclete
Nov 10, 2011, 06:45 PM
Tom there were even negotiations to sell it to Sth Carolina, but matters were allowed to escalate even though Anderson had indicated he would surrender on April 15. If Davis and Lincoln had stayed out of it, it would have been surrendered without a shot being fired.

Buchannan was of the opinion there was no provision for a state to withdraw from the union, neither was there one preventing it, so it was hardly rebellion

tomder55
Nov 10, 2011, 07:17 PM
There was either a disolution by consent of nullification , or there was revolt. The northern states did not agree to the disolution of the United States therefore there was rebellion.

Andrew Jackson during the Nullification crisis made it clear that there was no provision for a state to individually disolve the Union .


But each State having expressly parted with so many powers as to constitute jointly with the other States a single nation, cannot from that period possess any right to secede, because such secession does not break a league, but destroys the unity of a nation, and any injury to that unity is not only a breach which would result from the contravention of a compact, but it is an offense against the whole Union. To say that any State may at pleasure secede from the Union, is to say that the United States are not a nation because it would be a solecism to contend that any part of a nation might dissolve its connection with the other parts, to their injury or ruin, without committing any offense. Secession, like any other revolutionary act, may be morally justified by the extremity of oppression; but to call it a constitutional right, is confounding the meaning of terms, and can only be done through gross error, or to deceive those who are willing to assert a right, but would pause before they made a revolution, or incur the penalties consequent upon a failure.

And James Buchannan ;although a fecklessly weak executive in fact drew a sharp line in the sand about secession .

In order to justify secession as a constitutional remedy, it must be on the principle that the Federal Government is a mere voluntary association of States, to be dissolved at pleasure by any one of the contracting parties. If this be so, the Confederacy is a rope of sand, to be penetrated and dissolved by the first adverse wave of public opinion in any of the States. In this manner our thirty-three States may resolve themselves into as many petty, jarring, and hostile republics, each one retiring from the Union without responsibility whenever any sudden excitement might impel them to such a course. By this process a Union might be entirely broken into fragments in a few weeks which cost our forefathers many years of toil, privation, and blood to establish.

smoothy
Nov 10, 2011, 07:33 PM
funny from someone who has an avatar of William T Sherman.

I'm a Southerner by choice (and by the providence of employment)... but a Yankee by Birth. I've actually spent most of my adult life south of the Mason-Dixon line (except for a number of years in Europe). The last 19 of that in Virginia.

paraclete
Nov 10, 2011, 07:52 PM
Old Vaginny, Eh, well I sympathise with you for the desecration that was done to your state during the civil war. Damn near won it all by yourselves

smoothy
Nov 10, 2011, 07:55 PM
Old Vaginny, Eh, well I sympathise with you for the desecration that was done to your state during the civil war. Damn near won it all by yourselves

None of my ancestors were on this side of the Atlantic during that time frame... they were being abused by the British in Ireland and Scotland or by the Kaisers in Germany. They all immigrated here after 1900 as far as I can determine.

paraclete
Nov 10, 2011, 10:47 PM
None of my ancestors were on this side of the Atlantic during that time frame......they were being abused by the British in Ireland and Scotland or by the Kaisers in Germany. They all immigrated here after 1900 as far as I can determine.

Yeh, mine left Ireland in 1822, that's as much as I know. The British have had a thousand years of abusing the Irish, it seems to be a passtime with them, I guess they might have been afraid the Irish would get the ascendency