grammapat
Sep 4, 2010, 08:36 AM
If a person owns their home outright, could the lien holder sell the house (forcing the people out)? A friend has told me of 2 separate cases where an elderly person in a nursing home was cut off Medicade or Medicare (due to Obama-care CUTS). She said the spouses of the patients will somehow have to care for them at home, and the nursing home is going to put leins against their homes and they will have to move out. I tried to tell her this didn't make any sense (the nursing home would not be OWED any money if they "kicked them out" when their coverage was cut). The only way I can imagine a creditor could force a house sell is if there were no other lein-holders (like a mortgage) and the owners owed more money to the lein-holders than they could borrow on the house; so the nursing home (IRS,etc) would be just like a mortgage company - they could forclose on the house - and the personal circumstances of the residants wouldn't matter. But what if there are LOTS of leins against a property (mortgage, IRS, other things like the nursing home)? Can the house still be "forclosed"? Who gets paid first?