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kloklo
Nov 10, 2006, 07:44 PM
is it possible for depreciation expense- building and accumulated depreciation building (the same one) to have a different $value and be correct? For example my accum dep. Had a credit balance of 100 and then after calculating the dep. Exp of 150 I made an entry : dep exp. 150 debited, and accum dep 150 credited. After posting it to the trial balance the only way it can still balance is when I have a debit of 150 and credit of 150+previous 100, is that the correct way of solving it?:confused:

CaptainForest
Nov 10, 2006, 09:55 PM
What?

Here is what I THINK you are saying. If I am off base in my assumptions, please clarify.

2005: Had total Depreciation of $100

Now, 2006:
Dr. Depreciation Expense 150
Cr. Accum Depreciation 150

So Total Accum Depreciation is 100 from year 1, 150 fro this year, next year maybe it will be another 400 to make it a total of 650.

Is that what you are saying?

In which case, all you do is
Dr. Depreciation Expense 150
Cr. Accum Depreciation 150

And then you are done.