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CrystalSalvatore
Nov 8, 2006, 06:26 AM
My Mom and I are buying a house and my name will not be on the mortgage but will be on the title, is this a problem?

LisaB4657
Nov 8, 2006, 06:56 AM
As long as the mortgage lender has no problem, then you have no problem. The lender may require that you sign the mortgage but not the note. That's OK. That means that you consent to the lender foreclosing on the property if the payments aren't made, but it doesn't make you personally responsible for the payments.

Fr_Chuck
Nov 8, 2006, 07:20 AM
Agreed, as long as the lender is OK and accepts the lien on the deed as you are preparing it. The mortgage company will need full rights to forclose on the entire property not just the shave of the one person, so the deed will have to be prepared that way.

But if you have an attorney or title company doing all the paper work they will know how it is done

Cvillecpm
Nov 8, 2006, 09:11 AM
My Mom and I are buying a house and my name will not be on the mortgage but will be on the title, is this a problem?
If you refinance after the initial purchase there will be some questions.