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Ray Hampson
Sep 30, 2009, 09:42 AM
A one man company makes a profit of £9000 after tax and declares a dividend of £10000, giving rise to a payment of £9000 after a tax credit of £1000. How is this treated in the company accounts? Are the reserves simply £9000 less £9000? Or does the tax credit somehow have an impact on the company's taxation payment to HMRC? In a 20% tax regime the profit before tax would be £11250 giving rise to taxation of £2250 i.e. profit £9000 after tax. Is £2250 remitted to HMRC or does the tax credit have some implication?

rehmanvohra
Sep 30, 2009, 10:07 AM
A company may pay dividends in excess of the current year's profit if and only, it has retained profits available.

I believe, in the UK, there is a corporation tax as well as tax on dividends. As far as the corporation tax is considered it will be £1,250. Tax on dividends will be deducted from payment to the shareholders and remitted to the HMRC. That tax is the personal taxation of the shareholder

Ray Hampson
Oct 1, 2009, 07:53 AM
I think you mean CT is £2250 can you confirm? When is the tax on dividend remitted to HMRC? Is it immediately due, or is it due with CT i.e. 9 months after year-end?

rehmanvohra
Oct 1, 2009, 08:27 AM
Yes it must be £2,250. Sorry for typo. I think Tax on dividends becomes payable when the dividends are paid. I am not sure about the period, but I will confirm it after a little bit of study. Tax is not my subject.

rehmanvohra
Oct 1, 2009, 08:44 AM
I am not quite good at tax. My subject s are financial and management accounting. However, I have found an article that might be of help.