pourre
Jun 21, 2009, 09:17 PM
My widowed fiance' tells me he can sell the house without giving his children their inheritance. If he can do this does it mean he has 100% ownership of the house?
Would the children have to sign papers when he sells the house if they have a small percentage of ownership?
Would the children have to sign papers when he sells the house if they have a small percentage of ownership?