necka1118
May 8, 2009, 07:06 AM
My husband owned his own home for about 3 and a half years prior to us getting married. After we got married I moved in and we sold the house after I had been living there just under two years. We moved in with my parents for 6 months while our new home was being built. During this time, we were able to live rent and utility free and saved some money to put toward the new house.
His home had been bought for about $160K and sold for $295K. That money, along with savings was used to purchase our new home. Four years into living at our new home we decided to divorce. That home was sold and we split the money equally between both of us. Now, while trying to finalize our divorce, he is telling me I owe him the money he had made on his previous home. Am I responsible for that money or did it become comingeled assets in our marriage?
We never had a prenuptial agreement and I did not work during our marriage due to raising our children.
His home had been bought for about $160K and sold for $295K. That money, along with savings was used to purchase our new home. Four years into living at our new home we decided to divorce. That home was sold and we split the money equally between both of us. Now, while trying to finalize our divorce, he is telling me I owe him the money he had made on his previous home. Am I responsible for that money or did it become comingeled assets in our marriage?
We never had a prenuptial agreement and I did not work during our marriage due to raising our children.