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wallbanger
Apr 4, 2009, 08:58 PM
When considering impaired Goodwill can it be calculated as a fraction of Goodwill or does it have to be all of it?

Lets say Goodwill for a company is calculated to be $500,000. Can Impaired-Goodwill be determined to be some portion of this, say for example, $200,000 or is my question not making any sense?

Thank you,
Wallbanger

ROLCAM
Apr 5, 2009, 04:27 AM
If GOODWILL ,which is an intangible asset
Is impaired it can be reduced in the accounts.

It is called writing off goodwill.

wallbanger
Apr 5, 2009, 06:56 AM
If GOODWILL ,which is an intangible asset
is impaired it can be reduced in the accounts.

It is called writing off goodwill.


Thank you ROLCAM... I am new to this financing stuff so excuse me if my questions show my ignorance.

wallbanger