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IdahoBiker
Jan 14, 2009, 04:45 PM
I sold some Land 3 years ago, and on the property tax parcel it was listed as 3 Lots, I sold 2.
All 3 Lots had been being taxed as Unimproved since 1953. The Remaining Lot out of the 3, contains 21' of my Home, and has ever since 1953, so all these years that Lot was never adjoined to the Existing Home Parcel, and therefore I Lost out on all the Exemptions, and Circuit breakers. Is this Legit? I was under the Impression by what I have been told, that the Assessor's Office should have corrected this, so why didn't they? Do I have any Legal recourse for this? Shouldn't the Tax Assessors Office make this Correct, and Correct the excess amounts that were charged against this property?

AtlantaTaxExpert
Jan 15, 2009, 09:22 AM
Idaho:

This is more a LEGAL question than a Tax question, so I recommend that you psot it in the LAW forum.