LOwens
Dec 28, 2008, 07:35 AM
Hello,
I recently became engaged and began looking for a home in my fiance's hometown. I was aware that he previously owned a home that he "walked away from" in January 2006. He was given a mortgage loan that he was in no way able to pay for. He spoke so fondly of the home that I wanted to see if it was for sale. During the process, I drove by the home a few times and saw that no lights were ever on and no vehicles were parked in the driveway, so I was excited that the home might not have a new owner yet and may be for sale. I contacted the town's tax assessor to find the owner and was told that my fiancé still is the owner on record. I responded to the tax assessor and asked if the clerk might have new information about the owner of said property and was told that there was a corrective deed filed on 7-31-08 confirming that my fiancé is the owner.
I have lots of questions. If the lender owns the property, do they usually correct the deeds in a timely fashion after the mortgage is in default? Is the owner's signature required when a corrective deed is filed? Is it unusual to have a name on a deed of an owner who defaulted 3 years ago or is this the norm? Why would it be advantageous for a lender to file a corrective deed in his name instead of theirs? Do we need an attorney?
I recently became engaged and began looking for a home in my fiance's hometown. I was aware that he previously owned a home that he "walked away from" in January 2006. He was given a mortgage loan that he was in no way able to pay for. He spoke so fondly of the home that I wanted to see if it was for sale. During the process, I drove by the home a few times and saw that no lights were ever on and no vehicles were parked in the driveway, so I was excited that the home might not have a new owner yet and may be for sale. I contacted the town's tax assessor to find the owner and was told that my fiancé still is the owner on record. I responded to the tax assessor and asked if the clerk might have new information about the owner of said property and was told that there was a corrective deed filed on 7-31-08 confirming that my fiancé is the owner.
I have lots of questions. If the lender owns the property, do they usually correct the deeds in a timely fashion after the mortgage is in default? Is the owner's signature required when a corrective deed is filed? Is it unusual to have a name on a deed of an owner who defaulted 3 years ago or is this the norm? Why would it be advantageous for a lender to file a corrective deed in his name instead of theirs? Do we need an attorney?