My leaser of my house has been in it for a year. We talked about renewing her lease for another year. We agreed, in front of my dad, on a new monthly payment and term of another year. I emailed her a confirmation of the new monthly price and that it was for another year, as we agreed. A few days later she made her first payment at the increased price. I was concerned that she should get herself a room mate so she could afford the payments and also maybe then I could talk to her about a new lease and a increased price. I'm a softy, we had a good relationship, so I was holding the price down because she was by herself. Two weeks later she emails me that she has found another place and is going to move out in the middle of the month, next month. She says she didn't sign an agreement, so she is not legally bound. I believe the payment at the increased price shows acceptance of my email confirmation of the agreed upon new lease and allows the old contract to continue for the next year. Also, I rent from month to month, not mid month. Is the law 30 days from the monthly lease payment time for notification, in this case 1st to 1st, if I have to abide by month to month laws, now.

I don't see that she "signed" a new lease she paid a new amount that the new lease would be as part of her month to month.

Your mistake was not to have a new lease printed out, and have her sign it when you agreed. Or at least go over the next day and get it signed.

If you are going to be a landlord you can either be a softy or you can be professional, you can't be both.

Rental notice is normally by the pay period, if rent is 1st to 1st then that is the notice to be given in most areas.