I happened to come across a public record of sale that puzzled me. The home buyer and seller were one and the same person. The sale price was $100. Are there practical
And legal reasons for this action?

Not any reason, was it sold the second time on a different type of deed ? Was there someone else named on the original deed. A wife or husband that passed away,

Was it sold from a person to a LLC in that persons name

There was only one name listed as Seller and just that same name was listed as Buyer. All other information was the same.

Well at least no money left his hands. I don't know why this would be done.

Well, Fr. Chuck brought up the point there there are different types of deeds that may have a bearing on this action, so I'm going to research in that direction. Thanks.
As you can probably figure, the queston is not just a casual one.

Could a quitclaim come into play here? Would a $1 or more sale price be needed?

The other look up other old deeds, just because their name was the only one on sale, there may have been a deceased person on the old deed, the sale cleaned it up.

Not any reason, was it sold the second time on a different type of deed ? was there someone else named on the orginal deed. a wife or husband that passed away,

Was it sold from a person to a LLC in that persons name


I don't know about this particular transaction but in my area the published real estate records include only the name of the first party - so if a Deed went from Judy alone (or Judy and FrChuck) to Judy and somebody else it would be published as "Judy to Judy" (because the second party is not printed).

I've seen this on occasion in the local Law Journal.

(And, no, FrChuck, I have no intention of putting you on my Deed.)