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buck78
Mar 3, 2008, 01:19 PM
My wife and I moved from the UK to California in July 2007. She now wants a divorce, which is just great considering I moved here to be near her family!

We do not have any children and have very simple affairs. I am looking at the multitude online offerings for DIY no-fault divorce, because I want to just get it over and done with as quickly, economically and hassle-free as possible.

There is only one issue that I can see might be a problem, we have a house in the UK that we rent out to private tenants. It is in the process of being sold, but that could easily take another 6-8 months. Will having property affect whether I can fill in my own paperwork? Does the fact that it is overseas make a difference?

There is no question of the divorce or assets being contested and we have agreed that there will be no financial support issues.

Any help would be great

Thanks

twinkiedooter
Mar 6, 2008, 07:33 PM
There should be no problem if you two have agreed how to properly split the profits from the sale of the property. No fault means that you have already ironed out the issues and agree with each other about a divorce.

Fr_Chuck
Mar 6, 2008, 08:12 PM
IF you both agree on the sale of the property, and both of you agree on the division of the money from the sale, houlld be no roblem at all.

buck78
Mar 18, 2008, 10:18 PM
I'm now getting concerned about how the divorce will change my filing status. From what I can see, filing status is determined by marital status at the end of the year. Am I storing up a potential tax bill next April by not changing my witholding now?

450donn
Mar 19, 2008, 07:43 AM
Only the IRS can answer that one and in reality they probably can't either. However I think I would be more worried about your residency status. Unless you are planning on moving back to the UK?