Walhalla
Jan 8, 2008, 06:13 PM
I purchased a home recently in Upstate New York. The house is in good shape, insured. I touched it up and put it up for sale, everything works. My agent found a buyer who wants to purchase the house if I hold the mortgage. 10 pct down. Monthly payments, with a balloon payment (the balance due plus 8pct) in 4 years is the proposal.
The buyer has good references, I have no reason today to believe he will abandon or leave the agreement on bad terms and not pay the balance after 4 years.
However holding a mortgage is a loan. To hold a mortgage means I am loaning someone money to purchase the property. The disadvantage is the risk of defaulting. The advantage is only that I can sell it to someone who may not have enough down payment.
I could write it into the contract that they have to maintain insurance. I could also write it in that the buyer would have to send tax and insurance payments along with their monthly payments and I will pay the taxes and insurance.
But I can't help but keep wondering if I want to service a loan like this. Doesn't make a lot of sense.
So my question is this, does it make any sense for an individual to hold a mortagage?
The buyer has good references, I have no reason today to believe he will abandon or leave the agreement on bad terms and not pay the balance after 4 years.
However holding a mortgage is a loan. To hold a mortgage means I am loaning someone money to purchase the property. The disadvantage is the risk of defaulting. The advantage is only that I can sell it to someone who may not have enough down payment.
I could write it into the contract that they have to maintain insurance. I could also write it in that the buyer would have to send tax and insurance payments along with their monthly payments and I will pay the taxes and insurance.
But I can't help but keep wondering if I want to service a loan like this. Doesn't make a lot of sense.
So my question is this, does it make any sense for an individual to hold a mortagage?