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    lightmyfire123's Avatar
    lightmyfire123 Posts: 12, Reputation: 1
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    #1

    Nov 6, 2012, 06:21 PM
    If a man use cocaine and ejaculates in a female will she test positive the next day?
    My question is If the man is a daily cocaine user but the female is not and they have sex and the girl doesn't wash up after sex that night and the day after in the morning she has a Laboratory drug test not instant test will it detect cocaine when she urinates because some of the sperm residue left in her vagina goes in the cup when she pees? I am asking this since I am assuming that the drug lab test will be able to find minimal amounts where as the instant has a cutoff level
    Fr_Chuck's Avatar
    Fr_Chuck Posts: 81,301, Reputation: 7692
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    #2

    Nov 6, 2012, 08:03 PM
    Every test has min levels that are used for reporting purpose.

    But no, this should not cause any transfer.

    If she is physically around the drugs, if he uses in the same house, ( how is the drug used) I can see possible transfer at other areas in her life.
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