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    Bev Help's Avatar
    Bev Help Posts: 3, Reputation: 1
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    #1

    Aug 17, 2011, 09:54 AM
    Divorce after 2 years of marriage?
    I have been married just a little over 2 years. During that time we have had very little intimacy or communication. Due to kis, sex, and lies I want out. What am I entitled to after this period. I bround appox 30,000.00 into the marriage. He owns a house and that is about all the assets. His 401K is just about gone.
    kcomissiong's Avatar
    kcomissiong Posts: 1,166, Reputation: 276
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    #2

    Aug 18, 2011, 08:52 AM
    What you are entitled to depends on your incomes, what you have acquired during the marriage, and where you live. The house isn't marital property, its his unless he put you on the mortgage. If you have made contributions or live in a community property state, you may be able to get some equity, which in this market is virtually non existent. You need to provide more information such as the state you live in, who works and contributes to the household, are there children in common, etc. before we can give you a general idea of what could happen.
    Bev Help's Avatar
    Bev Help Posts: 3, Reputation: 1
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    #3

    Aug 20, 2011, 07:04 PM
    I live in Oklahoma. When we married I sold my house and we live in his. I put the money I made on the sale of my house plus the savings that I had in the bank into our joint account. All of our money, his and mine, was put into the joint account. We have not acquired anything other than more debt in the two years of marriage. My credit cards were out of hand and now I am in a debt relief program with my credit ruined. I work partime because he did not want me to work. He works full time and makes a good living although his debt eats it up every month. One thing we did do is refinance his house after we married so my name is suppose to be on the title. We have no kids involved. None of them live in the home. I only want what I brought into the marriage plus support until I can find a home and find a job. I will be moving back to the town I lived in before marriage.
    Bev Help's Avatar
    Bev Help Posts: 3, Reputation: 1
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    #4

    Aug 20, 2011, 07:19 PM
    Two years of marriage
    I have been married 2 years. What am I entitled to for this period. I live in Oklahoma. When we married I sold my house and we live in his. I put the money I made on the sale of my house plus the savings that I had in the bank into our joint account. All of our money, his and mine, was put into the joint account. We have not acquired anything other than more debt in the two years of marriage. My credit cards were out of hand and now I am in a debt relief program with my credit ruined. I work partime because he did not want me to work. He works full time and makes a good living although his debt eats it up every month. One thing we did do is refinance his house after we married so my name is suppose to be on the title. We have no kids involved. None of them live in the home. I only want what I brought into the marriage plus support until I can find a home and find a job. I will be moving back to the town I lived in before marriage.
    GV70's Avatar
    GV70 Posts: 2,918, Reputation: 283
    Family Law Expert
     
    #5

    Aug 20, 2011, 10:36 PM
    Oklahoma Statutes; Title 43, Section 121
    The court shall enter its decree confirming in each spouse the property owned by him or her before marriage and the undisposed of property acquired after marriage by him or her in his or her own right. Either spouse may be allowed such alimony out of real and personal property of the other as the court shall think reasonable, having due regard to the value of such property at the time of the divorce. Alimony may be allowed from real or personal property, or both, or in the form of money judgment, payable either in gross or in installments, as the court may deem just and equitable. As to such property, whether real or personal, which has been acquired by the parties jointly during their marriage, whether the title thereto be in either or both of said parties, the court shall, subject to a valid antenuptial contract in writing, make such division between the parties as may appear just and reasonable, by a division of the property in kind, or by setting the same apart to one of the parties, and requiring the other thereof to be paid such sum as may be just and proper to effect a fair and just division thereof. The court may set apart a portion of the separate estate of a spouse to the other spouse for the support of the children

    OKLAHOMA STATUTES

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