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kbalkhair · Jan 20, 2011, 09:26 AM

My mother is 62 Years old had MRI of Cervical Spine. The radiology report was as follows:
Technique: Sagittal axial T1 and T2-weighted for the cervical spine.
Findings:
Straightened of the cervical spine with loss of normal cervical lordosis, most likely due to muscle spasm. Dehydrated cervical disc showing loss of normal T2 signal intensity. Multiple level cervical degenerative disc herniations are identified at C2-C3, C3-C4, C4-C5, and C5-C6 levels. At all the levels, there is significant compression and complete effacement of the anterior subarachnoid space and multiple level indentation and compression of the spinal cord. Mild spondylotic changes of the cervical spine in the form of marginal osteophyte. No significant posterior soteophytes. Normal prevertebral soft tissues. Normal MRI signal intensity of the cervical spinal cord with no myelomalacic changes and normal cervicomedullary junction as well as the visualized parts of the brainstem. Normal MRI signal intensity of the cervical vertebtae. No other significant abnormality is identified.
Impression:
Dehydrated cervical disc showing multiple mainly central disc herniations at C2-C3, C3-C4, C4-C5, and C5-C6 causing significant compression of the anterior subarachnoid space and multiple level indentation of the cervical spinal cord.

Question:
1 – What is the best treatment for her case?
2 – If operation is suggested, what are the risks?

tickle · Jan 20, 2011, 10:03 AM

You are asking us to perform a function which is beyond our scope. We cannot possibly set up a treatment plan, this has to be done by her doctor, and as far as the operation goes, the surgeon and doctor have to make you and she aware of the risks.

Tick