In 1995 children of deceased parents sold parents property with affidavit of heirship. New owner died in 1998 without filing warranty deed to prorperty at courthouse, therefore there is no records of sale. Only living child came and advised neighbor he had no interest in property and left, never to been seen nor heard of again. Neighbor conveyed property to a lady with "special warranty deed". This deed was deemed unrecordable by county clerk and appraisal district, letter sent to both man who conveyed and new lady owner for proof of ownership by him and advising her of nonrecordable deed. Neither responded. Meantime tax office (small town) had man who died without recording his deed on the tax roll, he was senior citizen a veteran and was tax exempt. New lady owner never paid any property taxes in the 9 1/2 years she had the property. She never actually inhabited the house, let various persons live there, the septic system failed, they had dog fights in the front yard, used lots owned by other persons as their own to burn their house hold trash.

Now the house has been abandoned for about a month, the original children have put the property back in the "Estate Of" as far as the tax office goes.

Do they actually still own the property as the person they sold the property to is deceased, his son from my understanding is deceased and the lady doesn't have a good deed?

It would appear to me that the heirs of the last person holding good, recorded title now own the property.

Veterans don't get a 100% exemption - somebody paid some taxes. Who was billed for the taxes, who paid the taxes, who does the County/Town think owns the property?