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Home > Law > Real Estate Law   »   Is a rental lease legally binding if it was not signed by all parties?

 
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Old May 17, 2008, 06:32 AM
ejohame2
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Is a rental lease legally binding if it was not signed by all parties?

Is a rental lease legally binding if it was not signed by all parties?

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Old May 17, 2008, 06:35 AM   #2  
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Often the renter will sign his and the landlords copy, esp when using a renting agent, and be given a copy, and the orginal to the landlord forwarded to the landlord, this does not mean that the landlord has not signed his copy, Just because the renter does not have a copy signed by both parties does not mean it is not a valid rental agreement.

If there is not a signed lease that can be presented in court as evidence then there is no legal lease, remember if the landlord has a copy, he signs his and has it for court,

You also have the issue of an agreed to verbal lease , a verbal lease may be honored in some US states depending on thier rental laws
** a verbal month to month is valid in all states
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Old May 17, 2008, 09:51 AM   #3  
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It depends on which person didn't sign. If the landlord didn't sign then you can be sure that they will sign their copy before this gets to court. As long as one fully signed copy exists then it is legal and it doesn't matter if the tenant doesn't have a fully signed copy.

If one of the tenants didn't sign then the lease is still binding on the tenant that signed.
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