I am buying a home and offered the seller full asking price with the stipulation that they pay off 4 months of my present lease for a rental home. In the event the rental is re-rented in less than 4 months, isn't the leasing company required to return any unused rent payment to me, as the lessee, even if the money to pay off the original lease agreement comes from another person other than myself? Someone who is a property manager told me that it doesnt matter WHO the check comes from, that any overage will need to be refunded to me because the contract is with me; just like if the seller's check bounced (god forbid!) then I'd still be liable for the rent due, not the seller whose house I'm buying. Just wanted to get confirmation that this is correct.