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    jlucasarc's Avatar
    jlucasarc Posts: 1, Reputation: 1
    New Member
    		  
    #1

    Nov 8, 2011, 11:04 AM
    what fallacy is this? If A does not equal B, B is false
    IF one thing, X, is not equal to another thing, Y, then Y is void.
    Curlyben's Avatar
    Curlyben Posts: 18,514, Reputation: 1860
    BossMan
    		  
    #2

    Nov 8, 2011, 11:08 AM
    Well that makes no sense at all.
    What does it have to do with politics ?
    TUT317's Avatar
    TUT317 Posts: 657, Reputation: 76
    Senior Member
    		  
    #3

    Nov 8, 2011, 09:20 PM
    Quote Originally Posted by jlucasarc View Post
    IF one thing, X, is not equal to another thing, Y, then Y is void.

    Very difficult to say given the amount of information.

    You may well be asking about identity theory and as such you are asking a philosophical question. If this is the case then I assume you are saying if x and y are distinct, then there must be some property(s) that allows us to distinguish between x and y. In other words x has some property not found in y or vice versa.

    If this is the case then I would say there is no fallacy involved. Y is not void.

    An actual example or more detail would be helpful.


    Tut
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