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what fallacy is this? If A does not equal B, B is false

Asked Nov 8, 2011, 10:04 AM — 2 Answers
IF one thing, X, is not equal to another thing, Y, then Y is void.

2 Answers
Curlyben's Avatar
Curlyben Posts: 18,081, Reputation: 8728
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#2

Nov 8, 2011, 10:08 AM
Well that makes no sense at all.
What does it have to do with politics ?
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TUT317's Avatar
TUT317 Posts: 657, Reputation: 395
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#3

Nov 8, 2011, 08:20 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by jlucasarc View Post
IF one thing, X, is not equal to another thing, Y, then Y is void.

Very difficult to say given the amount of information.

You may well be asking about identity theory and as such you are asking a philosophical question. If this is the case then I assume you are saying if x and y are distinct, then there must be some property(s) that allows us to distinguish between x and y. In other words x has some property not found in y or vice versa.

If this is the case then I would say there is no fallacy involved. Y is not void.

An actual example or more detail would be helpful.


Tut
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