I have a house built in 1981 unfinished basement. Roughed in bathroom pipes. One pipe vent, one pipe shower/bath, one pipe toilet. Anyhow, on the shower/bath pipe I poured water down the pipe, drains normal but I can still see water at bottom (no evidence of tee ot 90deg bend at bottom) does this mean P-Trap?

I ran a snake down but unclear if it made correct angles for P-trap. I would persume if water stays in the pipe a p-trap exists. Let me know if I missed something. There is no DAP out hole so I would have to break concrete for tub overflow connection to drain connection, using the rough shower/bath pipe. Tx

PalmMP3

There should definitely be a P-trap down there if the pipes were roughed in properly, because (unless I am very much mistaken) a basement shower P-trap goes under the concrete, so it would make sense for it to have been installed as part of the rough-in.

Just my two cents. Maybe the real experts will disagree with me...

speedball1

"Maybe the real experts will disagree with me."
Not at all Palm. You hit the nail on the head. Jjawacs, you can stop wondering, you indeed have a "P" trap under the cement. And you are correct when you say that you'll have to create a dap out if you wish to install a tub. Good luck, Tom

jjawacs

Thanks for the quick response, just some elbow grease ahead now.