I am curious whether it is a hipaa violation if a doctor uses information about a patient given to him by the patients spouse. For example, a patient is recieving anti anxiety and pain meds and has been for years. The doctors office always felt it was possible this patient could be over using the medication, but never had any proof of it. The spouse informed the physicians office that the patient has been in rehab multiple times and the drug of choice is the anti anxiety medication. The spouse confirms what the doctors office had assumed. The doctor then cancels all the prescription medications that are related to pain or anti anxiety medications. Is this ok? Would this be considered ok due to it being the doctors "professional opinion and good judgement" to cancel and do more research? Also, the spouse wants to maintain anonymity due to fear of the patient hurting the family if the patient found out.

LearningAsIGo

This isn't a HIPAA violation.

HIPAA is meant to protect a patients privacy. A violation would have been if the DOCTOR gave information to the spouse if it was not previously approved by the patient. A patients spouse giving the doctor information is not a HIPAA violation.

Fr_Chuck

no it is not a violation