I know that it is a well know fact that affluent people often have very different interests (i.e. in sport) to poorer people, even when they live in close proximity. Is there a theory that some geogpraher has made? or is it just a common stereotype/knowledge?

jakester

I don't know if I'd make a generalization of people, rich or poor, in terms of their interests. If you are saying that rich people eat caviar and poor people eat the 1$ menu from McDonald's, I'd say you were being irrational and being far too general. If you were saying that rich people play golf at the country club and poor people play stick ball, again, it's the same generalization.

I have known poor people with very unique interests to people with money. And I have known rich people who have plenty of money but you would never know it because they lived a humble lifestyle. You really have to judge each person as an individual.

Besides, what does it matter anyway? Why are you asking?

ylaira

Well in some way it might be right. When someone has money and thought he likes expensive thing, he can get it. ALso they are exposed to different people than can possibly intoduce other things that they may like and do in future.

Poorer ones just content themselves what is accessible and available. Their money is just enough for what is needed.