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I work for a food company that also owns a golf course. the golf course employees are hired and payed by the food company. We have there insurance, and there holiday. There stock is private, and only can be bought by employees, which we can buy. The food company has a 401-k plan, and they get stock given to them based on how much they make. The golf course employees get all benefits except the 401-k, and the free stock. Is this discrimination.
Let me see are all of the employees a certain race that don't get it ?
Are all of them women ??
A company does not have to provide any benifit, so you are lucky to have what you do. Since this is a seperate company, owned by one company, they don't have to.
If the food company treats all the golf course employees equally then its not discrimination. Apparently the golf course is kept and treated as a separate entity within the food company books. As long as that is done, they can be given different benefit packages.
Discrimination is not illegal. Only SOME types of discrimination are illegal.
To wit: Your employer may not discriminate against any individual based upon his color, race, age, gender, ethnicity, physical impairment, and in some jurisdictions, sexual orientation.
Beyond that, he may discriminate at his pleasure. For example, he could pay the guy right next to you, who does the same exact job you do, a lot more money. He could do that simply because he likes him better than you.
Benefits are just that - benefits. If the golf course employees get different benefits than the food company employees get - then there is no recourse for discrimination. If golf course employees are not getting the benefits equally - then that's discrimination. A company can choose to give benefits as they see fit to their employees. It's up to them, not the employee what benefits are offered. Just because one company owns the other makes no difference. Sorry.
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