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Originally Posted by ZachZ I am just curious how Christians explain this one: |
I'll give it a shot.
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Hosea 11:9 -- "I will not execute the fierceness of Mine anger, I will not return to destroy Ephraim; for I am God, and not man, the Holy One in the midst of thee; and I will not come in fury."
A fundamental belief of Christianity is that Jesus is "fully man" in addition to being God.
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I'm not aware that this is a prophecy of Jesus Christ. This is the Old Testament. Jesus Christ has not as yet been born.
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How do Christians explain away the fundamentally contradictory belief that someone/thing can be "fully God" and "fully man" at the same time, in apparent flat defiance of Hosea 11:9?
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God had not yet taken human flesh at this point. He did so later:
Philippians 2 5 For let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:
6 Who being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
7 But emptied himself, taking the form of a servant, being made in the likeness of men, and in habit found as a man.
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What is the Christian apologetic that rationalizes the syncretism of knowing that Hosea 11:9 is true -- God is not a man -- and also knowing that Jesus is fully man, and therefore not God, but simultaneously believing he is God?
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Mark 10 27 And Jesus looking on them, saith: With men it is impossible; but not with God:
for all things are possible with God.
Its a mystery revealed to us by Jesus Christ. We don't know how. But we accept that it is true.
Sincerely,
De Maria
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