Denzera
Mar 22, 2013, 02:00 PM
Dear accounting wizards,
Suppose I am running an ad exchange for digital advertising. Website publishers send me impressions, I sell those impressions to advertisers, give them a fixed share, and keep the rest. i.e. suppose a site sends me 1000 impressions, I sell them for $3, give the site $1, and keep $2. The question is, which counts as my revenue - the $3 that I gross, or the $2 that I net after the revenue share?
There are two points of view that I've come across discussing this with colleagues:
1) The revenue share is analogous to a sales commission - the site is bringing me the opportunity to make money, I convert it and give them a cut. Therefore my gross revenue is $3 and I have a selling expense of $1.
2) The money the advertiser is paying is immediately split up among multiple parties at the time of payment, so to count the full $3 as part of my revenue would be to count someone else's share as mine. Given that I'm contractually obligated to pay out a share immediately to the web publisher (the site), or, really, within a few weeks of receiving cash, that money was never "mine" and I can't count it as revenue.
Which is more correct? Does it depend on the particulars of the contract with the publishers (the websites)?
Many thanks,
Steve
Suppose I am running an ad exchange for digital advertising. Website publishers send me impressions, I sell those impressions to advertisers, give them a fixed share, and keep the rest. i.e. suppose a site sends me 1000 impressions, I sell them for $3, give the site $1, and keep $2. The question is, which counts as my revenue - the $3 that I gross, or the $2 that I net after the revenue share?
There are two points of view that I've come across discussing this with colleagues:
1) The revenue share is analogous to a sales commission - the site is bringing me the opportunity to make money, I convert it and give them a cut. Therefore my gross revenue is $3 and I have a selling expense of $1.
2) The money the advertiser is paying is immediately split up among multiple parties at the time of payment, so to count the full $3 as part of my revenue would be to count someone else's share as mine. Given that I'm contractually obligated to pay out a share immediately to the web publisher (the site), or, really, within a few weeks of receiving cash, that money was never "mine" and I can't count it as revenue.
Which is more correct? Does it depend on the particulars of the contract with the publishers (the websites)?
Many thanks,
Steve