msalim
Aug 3, 2010, 03:34 AM
Aslamalaikum, Is it true that an orphan grandchild has no share in the grandfather's property(if father dies before grandfather) in India according to shariat law?
If yes, but why in other countries like syria, egypt, lebanon, iraq etc have different law? These countries provide share to granchild not exceeding 1/3 of total share.Laws are made to give justice to every section but why this illogical law is made in Indian Shariat? Non Muslims are making fun of this law? From where it has been derieved or why it is different from country to country.Is this law challengeble anywhere or not?
If yes, but why in other countries like syria, egypt, lebanon, iraq etc have different law? These countries provide share to granchild not exceeding 1/3 of total share.Laws are made to give justice to every section but why this illogical law is made in Indian Shariat? Non Muslims are making fun of this law? From where it has been derieved or why it is different from country to country.Is this law challengeble anywhere or not?