Ask Experts Questions for FREE Help!
 

Free Answers in 3 Easy Steps

Register Now
3 Steps
 


Ask QuestionsprogressAnswer QuestionsprogressBuild ReputationprogressBecome an Expert
 
At Ask Me Help Desk you can ask questions in any topic and have them answered for free by our experts. To ask questions or participate in answering them you must register for a free account. By registering you will be able to:
  • Get free answers from experts in any of our 300+ topics.
  • Accept money for answers that you provide.
  • Communicate privately with other members (PM).
  • See fewer ads.
  Answer this Question    Ask about Investing    Ask about another Subject  
 

AnamicaG
Mar 1, 2009, 10:09 PM
I wanted to find out if the following scenario will be considered a wash sale.
Let's say:
Lot#1: You first buy 500 shares at $4 per share.
Lot#2: A week later you buy 500 shares of the same stock at $3 per share
Lot#3: A week after that you buy 1000 shares of the same stock at $2 per share

I know if I sell the first lot of 500 shares for a loss within a 30 days of buying the Lot#2 or Lot#3, it will be considered a wash sale.

But I am trying to find out, what happens if you sell all of them together. In other words, if I seel all 3 lots together (2000 shares) in one sale, will either Lot#1 or Lot#2 be considered a wash sale.

For this same example sake, let's say if I am trying to sell all shares for $2.50. Since this is loss for Lot#1 and Lot#2, will the loss be considered wash sale?
OR
It won't be considered a wash sale because you are selling them together and the 30 day rule won't apply here?

Thanks in advance!

ROLCAM
Mar 1, 2009, 10:18 PM
Definition of WASH SALE :-

wash sale,(Finance.) a fictitious buying and selling of a security, now prohibited by law, as by two brokers at the same time for a single customer, to give an appearance of market activity and encourage outside participation in helping to raise or lower the price.

In your example the buying and selling is NOT fictitious.
You can do what you suggest without breaking any laws.

ebaines
Mar 2, 2009, 11:50 AM
ROLCAM's definitoin is not the same as what the IRS considers a wash sale. According to the IRS:

A wash sale occurs when you sell or trade stock or securities at a loss and within 30 days before or after the sale you:

Buy substantially identical stock or securities,

Acquire substantially identical stock or securities in a fully taxable trade,

Acquire a contract or option to buy substantially identical stock or securities, or

Acquire substantially identical stock for your individual retirement account (IRA) or Roth IRA.

In case of a wash sale you cannot deduct your losses until you sell the substantialy identical lot - in other words, you postone the recognition of the loss until that sale. In your example if you sell all the stock, then you are NOT subject to wash sales rules because you no longer have any stock to postpone the loss with.

For details and examples see:
Publication 550 (2008), Investment Income and Expenses (http://www.irs.gov/publications/p550/ch04.html#en_US_publink100010601)